Here I will provide you the solved Sample paper of social Science of CBSE Board for session 2023-24. This CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper will give an idea about the 2024 board question paper of SST
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 2023-24
Duration: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in
the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks
each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
4. Section C contains Q.25to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words
5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
6. Section-E - Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions
and are of 4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.
7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History
(2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been
provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
9. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever
necessary.
10. Note: CBQ stands for “Competency Based Question”. 50% weightage allocated for
competency-based questions.
SECTION A
MCQs (1 x 20= 20)
Q1- Identify the correct option that describes the act given below.
(i) The Act was passed by the Imperial Legislative Council.
(ii) It gave power to the government to repress political activities.
(iii) It empowered the government to detain political prisoners without trial.
Options:
a. Rowlatt Act
b. Government of India Act
c. Vernacular Press Act
d. Inland Emigration Act
Ans: a. Rowlatt Act
Q2- Which place in India has an artificial lake to conserve water that dates
to 11th century?
a. Delhi
b. Bhopal
c. Mumbai
d. Kanpur
Ans: b. Bhopal
Q3- Read the data given below and answer the question.
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a. Uttar Pradesh
b. Odisha
c. Rajasthan
d. Assam
Ans: d. Assam
Q4- Which of the following options represent potential measures that can be
taken to mitigate the threats posed by mining activities on the Buxar
tiger reserve's ecosystem and biodiversity?
i. Implementing stricter regulations and monitoring mechanisms.
ii. Enforcing buffer zones around protected areas.
iii. Promoting alternative livelihoods and sustainable economic development
in the surrounding communities.
iv. Displacement of Tiger reserve from Buxar
Options:
a. Statement i and ii are correct.
b. Statement ii, iii & iv are correct
c. Statement ii is correct.
d. Statement i, ii, & iii are correct.
Ans: d. Statement i, ii, & iii are correct.
Q5- When many countries of Europe came together to form the European
Union, ______ was chosen as its headquarters.
a. Brussels
b. Paris
c. London
d. Zurich
Ans: a. Brussels
Q6- Which of the following statements accurately distinguishes between
Majoritarianism and Power sharing?
a. Majoritarianism emphasizes the dominance of the majority community,
while Power sharing emphasizes the sharing of power among different
groups.
b. Majoritarianism emphasizes the need for consensus building, while
Power sharing emphasizes the exclusion of minority groups.
c. Majoritarianism emphasizes the importance of accommodating minority
interests, while Power sharing emphasizes the need for majority rule.
d. Majoritarianism emphasizes the need for peaceful resolution of conflicts,
while Power sharing emphasizes the use of force to impose the majority's
will.
Ans: a. Majoritarianism emphasizes the dominance of the majority
community, while Power sharing emphasizes the sharing of power
among different groups.
Q7- There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark
your answer as per the codes provided below:
Assertion: Democracy increases not only expectations but also complaints.
Reason: Complaining is itself a testimony to the success of democracy.
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
d. (A) is wrong but (R) is correct
Ans: b. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation
of (A)
Q8- If “R” wants cloth, which “S” has, then “R” should have a commodity
that “S” wants in exchange for the cloth. In the absence of such
coincidence of wants, there will be no exchange.
Identify the situation and choose the right option that will definitely help
“R” and “S” to eliminate this situation.
a. Double coincidence of want, Exchanging commodity for commodity.
b. Double Coincidence of want, Credit on Commodity
c. Double coincidence of want, Loan on commodity.
d. Double coincidence of want, Money
Ans: d. Double coincidence of want- Money
Q9- You are a citizen of a country that has a democratic form of government.
You want to ensure that the system of power-sharing in your country is
effective and that no one branch of government has absolute power.
Which of the following measures would best meet this goal?
a. All power is concentrated in the hands of the central government, which
has the final say in all matters.
b. Power is divided between the central government and the states or
provinces, with each level having its own sphere of influence.
c. Power is separated among the legislative, executive, and judicial
branches, with each branch having its own responsibilities and powers.
d. Power is shared among different levels of government, such as the
national, regional, and local governments, with each level having some
degree of autonomy.
Ans: c. Power is separated among the legislative, executive, and judicial
branches, with each branch having its own responsibilities and powers.
Q10- Identify the painting from the options given below.
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b. Reichstag
c. Duma
d. The House of Parliament
Ans: a. Frankfurt Parliament
Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in
lieu of Q. No. 10
Q. Which of the following does the symbol “crown of oak leaves “stand
for?
a. Freedom
b. Shows readiness to fight.
c. Willingness to make peace.
d. Heroism.
Ans: d. Heroism
Q11- Evaluate the impacts of opening foreign trade on the global economy by
identifying the appropriate statements among the following options:
i. The choice of goods in the markets increase.
ii. Producers from two countries closely compete against each other despite
the distance between their locations.
iii. Foreign trade thus results in connecting the markets or integration of
markets in different countries.
iv. The quality of the product is always good.
Options:
a. Statements i and ii are appropriate.
b. Statements i, ii and iii are appropriate.
c. All the statements are appropriate.
d. Only statement iv is appropriate.
Ans: Statements i, ii and iii are appropriate.
Q12- If a government provides its citizens a right and means to examine the
process of decision, it is ______________.
a. An accountable government
b. A responsible government
c. A transparent government
d. A stable government.
Ans: a. An accountable government
Q13- Arrange the following statements in sequential order based on the
events that shaped the Non-cooperation movement.
i. General Dyer opened fire at the large crowd gathered in the enclosed ground
of Jallianwalla Bagh.
ii. “Forced recruitment” carried out by the British government and the economic
hardships faced by the people during the first world war.
iii. The defeat of the Ottoman Emperor of Turkey led to the formation of the
Khilafat movement.
iv. Gandhiji launched a nationwide satyagraha against the Rowlatt act.
Options:
a. iv, iii, ii, i
b. ii, i, iii, iv
c. i, iv, iii, ii
d. i, ii, iii, iv
Ans: b. ii, i, iii, iv
Q14- There was a strike announced by the “Transport union” due to which the
Lorries refused to transport vegetables, milk, etc. from the rural areas to
the Urban areas. Food became scarce in urban areas whereas farmers
were unable to sell their products. Which of the following sectors are
affected due to the strike carried out by the “Transport Union”.
a. Primary and Secondary
b. Secondary and Tertiary
c. Tertiary, Primary and Secondary
d. Tertiary and Primary.
Ans: c. Tertiary, Primary and Secondary
Q15- Consider the statements given below and choose the correct answer
Statement I: Western printing techniques and mechanical press were
imported in the late 19th Century as western powers established their
outposts in China.
Statement II: Beijing became the hub of the new print culture, catering to
western-style schools.
a. Statement (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect.
b. Statement (i) is incorrect and (ii) is correct
c. Both (i) & (ii) are incorrect
d. Both (i) & (ii) are correct
Ans: a. statement (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect.
Q16- “M” gave his friend clues about a type of soil that suits for growing
cotton. Which of the following clues provided by "M" would be most
useful in identifying the ideal type of soil?
Clues:
i. It is well-known for its capacity to hold moisture.
ii. It turns yellow when it is hydrated.
iii. It is rich in kankur and bhangar nodules.
iv. It is a well-drained loamy soil.
a. Clue i
b. Clue i and iii
c. Clue i and ii
d. Clue iv
Ans: a. Clue i
Q17- The emergence of _______ is directly connected to the rise of political
parties.
a. Monitory democracies
b. Direct democracies
c. Representative democracies
d. Constitutional democracies
Ans: c. Representative democracies
18. The process of rapid integration or interconnection between countries
through movement of goods and services, investments and
technology between countries is called as ____________
a. Privatization
b. Globalization
c. Liberalization
d. Competition
Ans: b. Globalization
Q19- Which of the following statements will be considered by a political party
while forming a government?
Statement i: Representatives of different castes and tribes.
Statement ii: Representatives of all religions.
Statement iii: Representatives of the elite.
Statement iv: Representatives of the Non-residents of India NRI
Options:
a. Statement i and ii are right.
b. Statement i, ii and iii are right.
c. Statement iii is right.
d. Only statement iv is right.
Ans: a. Statement i and ii are right.
Q20- Miss “S” approached a bank nearby to avail loan for her own business,
as well as a Self-help group which is operating in her village, the bank
rejected her loan application whereas the Self-help group accepted to
support her by providing the loan.
Which one of the following documents is required by the bank, but not
required by the self-help group to approve Miss "S's" loan application
for her business?
a. Application for loans
b. Arrangement Letter
c. Document on Collateral
d. Demand promissory note and take delivery letter.
Ans: c. Document on Collateral
SECTION BVERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTION (2 x 4= 8)
Q21: Study the map thoroughly and mention the languages that are
dominantly spoken in Belgium
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For Visually impaired students in lieu of the above question.
Q: Mention the languages that are dominantly spoken in Belgium;
Ans: The languages that are dominantly spoken in Belgium are Dutch and
French,
Q22: The most powerful weapon of the Spanish conqueror was not a
conventional military weapon at all. Justify the above statement by
giving two reasons.
Ans: 1. Spanish conquerors won America with not conventional military weapon
but with germs like smallpox which spread deep into the continent before
any European could reach there.
2. America's original inhabitants had no immunity against these diseases that
came from Europe. This disease erased the whole community, leading to
conquest. This biological warfare in the mid sixteenth century made it easy
for Spanish to overpower the Americans.
Q23: Mr. ‘P’ is from Assam”. He wishes to cultivate either Tea or Wheat. Which
one of the crops out of the two can he cultivate in his state? Substantiate
your answer with any two reasons.
Ans: Mr. “P” must cultivate Tea in Assam as the soil and climatic conditions
in Assam are suitable to grow Tea.
Reason-1:The tea plant grows well in tropical and sub-tropical climates endowed with
deep and fertile well-drained laterite soil, rich in humus and organic matter.
Tea bushes require a warm and moist frost-free climate all through the
year.
Reasob-2: Frequent showers evenly distributed over the year ensure continuous
growth of tender leaves.
Q24: Mention any four reasons to prove that India is a federal country.
Ans: The following are the reasons which proves that India is a federal
country.
Reason-1: Division of Powers: The Constitution of India clearly demarcates the
powers of the Central and State governments, and both have their separate
areas of jurisdiction. The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution lists
the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List, which define the powers and
responsibilities of the Central and State governments.
Reason-2: Independent Judiciary: India has an independent judiciary with the power
of judicial review. The Supreme Court of India is the highest judicial
authority in the country and has the power to interpret the Constitution and
resolve disputes between the Central and State governments.
Reason-3: Representation of States: The Rajya Sabha, the upper house of the
Indian Parliament, represents the States and Union Territories of India. The
members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of the
Legislative Assemblies of the States and Union Territories.
Reason-4: Special Status to States: Some States in India enjoy special status and
have been granted more autonomy than others. For example, Jammu and
Kashmir have their own Constitution and a separate flag, and Nagaland
has its own Constitution and a special status under Article 371A of the
Indian Constitution.
These factors contribute to India being a federal country where power is
divided between the Central and State governments.
(Any two relevant points explained)
SECTION C
SHORT ANSWER-BASED QUESTIONS (3 x 5= 15)
Q25: Provide evidence to support the claim that print culture had a significant
impact on the social lives of women in India?
Ans: The rise of print culture in India during the 19th century played a crucial
role in awakening the social life of women. The printing press allowed women
to access information, knowledge and ideas that were previously inaccessible
to them. Women's magazines, newspapers and books provided a platform for
women to express their views, ideas and opinions on various social issues
such as education, gender equality, women's rights, and social reform.
1. Liberal husbands and fathers began educating their womenfolk at home
and sent them to schools.
In East Bengal, Rashsundari Debi, a young married girl in a very orthodox
household, learnt to read in the secrecy of her kitchen and wrote her
autobiography Amar Jiban (1876). It was the first full-length autobiography
published in the Bengali language.
2. The Bengali women like Kailashbashini Debi wrote books highlighting the
experiences of women – about how women were imprisoned at home, kept
in ignorance, forced to do hard domestic labor and treated unjustly by their
families.
3. In Maharashtra, Tarabai Shinde & and; Pandita Ramabai wrote with
passionate anger about the miserable lives of upper-caste Hindu women,
especially widows.
4. A woman in a Tamil novel expressed what reading meant to women who
were confined by social regulations:’ For various reasons, my world is small
… More than half my life’s happiness has come from books …’
Therefore, print culture helped awaken social consciousness and
contributed to the progress of women's rights and empowerment in India.
(Any 3 relevant points to be mentioned)
Q26: Mr. “R” was a regular worker in a small factory. He was not paid his
wages properly and the factory did not follow the factory rules and
regulations stated by the government, recently he lost his job and was
found selling electrical items in a pushcart. Analyze the role of the
government in protecting the workers like “R”.
Ans: The following are the ways in which the workers in the unorganized
sector can be protected:
1. Minimum working hours and wages should be fixed by the government.
2. To help self-employed people, the government can provide loans.
3. Basic services such as education, health, and food should be taken care
of by the government
4. Enforce labour laws
5. Ensure minimum wages act been followed by the factory
6. Stipulate the working hours, assuring job security and employees benefits
such as over time allowance, bonus, increment, health insurance been
provided to the workers. In short workers welfare been taken care as per
the act of 1956.
Q27: ‘Agriculture gives boost to the industrial sector’. Justify the statement
with any 3 relevant points.
Ans: 1. Raw Material Supply: Agriculture is a significant source of raw materials for
various industries, such as food processing, textiles, and paper. For
instance, the cotton industry relies heavily on the production of cotton from
agricultural fields. Similarly, food processing industries rely on agricultural
products such as fruits, vegetables, and cereals. Thus, a healthy
agricultural sector can ensure a steady supply of raw materials for
industries, which, in turn, can boost their productivity and growth.
2. Market Expansion: Agriculture provides a vast market for industrial
products. For example, the use of agricultural machinery such as tractors,
tillers, and harvesters creates a demand for industrial goods, including
steel, plastics, and rubber. Moreover, the growth of the agricultural sector
increases the purchasing power of farmers, who become a significant
consumer group for industrial products such as consumer goods,
automobiles, and appliances.
3. Employment Generation: Agriculture is a labor-intensive sector that
generates employment opportunities for a significant population in India. A
healthy agricultural sector can increase the income levels of farmers and
agricultural workers, which, in turn, can create a demand for industrial
products and services. Additionally, agriculture-related industries such as
food processing and agrochemicals also create job opportunities,
especially in rural areas. Thus, a robust agricultural sector can help to
reduce unemployment and poverty, which are major challenges in India.
(Any three relevant points to be mentioned)
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